My question is that what is difference between Khilafah and Malookiyah and why is Hazrat Ameer Muawiyah (rta) mostly blamed for that. And is Hazrat Muawiyah really responsible for turning Khilafah to Malookiyah?
Our religious scholars frequently issue a statement that the whole Pakistani population of 150 million desire an Islamic system. Is it not an exaggeration, definitely not based on reality? What is the moral standing of this statement?
Is democracy totally incongruent to Islam? On what grounds democracy and Islam can be shown to be equal and on which grounds these are mutually exclusive? I believe that democracy is the system of West whereas khilafat is the system of Islam. Democracy on the contrary, is based on the principle of "sovereignty of the people" as is evident from its very definition. Suppose if the parliament legalizes the consumption of alcohol we can’t stop…
In your earlier response, you wrote that Democracy is the recommended way of Islamic ruling according to the Quran. However, in yet another place, you wrote that a ruler is obliged to rule by Shariah otherwise he will be guilty of kufr. My question is, how will a ruler rule both by Shariah and also accept Democracy when the citizens of the country have no regard for Islamic values?