One of my friends claims that the distinction between mutawatir and ahad (individual-to-individual, isolated) hadith and historical reports was introduced by a certain "Bish bin Ghiyath". He was one of the experts of kalaam (scholastic theology). He was even considered as kafir. In other words, the source of the mutawaatir vs. ahaad distinction was people of bid’ah (innovation). It has been claimed that Imam Thahabi held this in Siyar A’lam Al-Nubala’. Please comment.
How do you define Ijmā‘ and tawātur?
In how many practices are aḥādīth and the non-Qur’ānic Tawātur superior to the Holy Qur’ān? How many of such practices exist according to the sectarians?
I have two questions to ask of you. Are the following obligations based on the khafī (i.e. that which is not part of the Qur’an) revelation: five daily prayers, washing feet in ablution, miracles, predestination, and belief in the life in barzakh?
Do we have to reinterpret the verses which confirming anthropomorphism?
You say that the sunan are not derived from the hadith books but they have reached to us by the ijma and tawatur of the Muslim ummah. But in many of your various articles you mentioned that hadith books besides having the record of some historical facts and other things do have a record of some of the sunan. Thus the statement that the hadith books do have a record of "some of the sunan"…
On several articles on your website you talk about tawatur with reference to sunnah. You say that collection of hadith is not sunnah. Is not hadith a source of sunnah? How else would we know how much to pay in zakat, how to do salat or do sawm? If you claim that sunnah is passed on generation to generation and preserved, then how come the shias offer salat differently from sunis, how come their fast…
Please explain with the help of evidences that some issues not discussed in the Holy Qur’ān, for example washing feet as a part of ablution, are sunnah mutawātarah seeing to the fact that more than ten percent Pakistanis believe in massah.