Questions - Divorce Browse Categories

Sir, if a husband gives conditional divorce to his wife, like for example he says that if you go outside the country without my permission you will be divorced but allows her to leave after a few days, but due to other factors the husband seems to be dissatisfied with the wife and does not come to see her off when she leaves. Now the wife seems to claim that he was not happy with her so the divorce is effective. Is this statement right or wrong?

I want to ask whether just thinking over the divorce words with the intention of trying to remember whether I used them or not anytime makes divorce effective without speaking up the words?

I have a couple of questions regarding divorce. a) Is the use of words "I divorce you" necessary for a divorce to occur, or any other words like "you are free" can also have the same effect. b) I was talking to my wife on phone and to conclude the discussion, I said "Ok so now u are free" (Ab aap aazad hain) "You can do whatever you want to do". It was never in my thoughts that I am divorcing her. But immediately after saying these words to her, I thought may be these words have the affect of divorce? c) Is intention important for divorce or using any of these words without intention can also cause divorce?

I was married to my husband in September and got pregnant immediately after. He thought the baby was someone else's and he accused me of zinaa without any witnesses and kicked me out over a month ago. I moved back home with my parents in a different state. Since then I have had little to no communication with him. He is not supporting me and my unborn child financially. He continuously slanders my name, threatens me and emotionally abuses me. I know that under the Shari'ah law he is obligated to financially support me until I have my child. However, in his mind he is not my husband anymore. He said, "I will exercise my right to divorce" through a text message without witnesses but it was never said to my face. I do not wish to see or speak to him ever again. How would our divorce go if we don’t even have contact with each other? Also, neither one of us has Muslim family and neither one of us has legally changed our names. He goes by an Islamic name which doesn’t have his father's lineage (he got the name from a Muslim woman he calls Ummi that isn’t actually his mother) and his legal last name comes from his mother. Since neither name that he has contains his father's lineage which last name would I give my baby? Would it be haraam for me to give the baby my last name since he's denying that he is the father?

I am confused about the issue of triple talaq. One of our relatives, in extreme anger, declares two divorces. His son shut his mouth. The next day he again gives talaq in one sitting three times. The man is about seventy years of age and his wife is about sixty five. The man is very sick and is lying on bed all the time. They have five children all of them are married. The couple has many grandsons and granddaughters. Keeping this in perspective please explain whether the divorce is effective. Also please explain the issue of iddah in this senior age. The man and the woman live together with their son in the same house.

1. Is iddah compulsory while the wife and husband are leaving in different countries from last five months?

3. Should the husband demand whatever given to wife except mehr in the above case?

My husband divorced me during pregnancy. Is he allowed to do that?

Could you give some direction as to the Islamic ritual on a woman after the death of her husband?

A wife is of a pious nature. However, the parents demand from his son to divorce her? Is it necessary to fulfil their demand? Can we also request them not to slander her?

Is the divorce pronounced in extreme anger valid?