Regarding The Jihad Of The Companions Of The Prophet (sws)

My question is regarding Jihad of the companions of prophet. I am convinced about the stance of Mr Ghamidi that Prophet (sws) in fact killed the mushrikeen of that time after "itamam-e-hujjat". But I wonder that itamam-e-hujjat can be accepted for individuals who were the direct addressees of Prophet (sws), as he (sws) totally convinced them regarding the message of Islam and they deliberately denied the truth. But what about the nations (i.e. Persians and Romans) which were just sent letters. Can "itamam-e-hujjah" be done just by sending letters? I believe that saying that "itamam-e-hujjah was completed on those nations just by sending letters, is a weak argument. May be my knowledge is not complete. Kindly shed some light in detail as I and my friend are having difficulty in understanding this.

Some people are of the view that hizb-ullah and taliban have actually defeated Israel and US by engaging them in war for several years and at the same time recently Israel withdrew from one of the wars against hizbullah. Now the jihad they are doing does not satisfy all the conditions of jihad, then how they are winning the battles, should we consider it that it is God's help (nusrat-e-ilahi). And can we say that today Israel, India and US are doing persecution and if we were able then jihad was obligatory to be declared by our state? Kindly answer in detail about both the questions especially the first one.

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Itmam A Hujjah And The Jihad Of The Companions

I have following questions regarding the answer you have provided me regarding Itamam-ul-Hujjah on neighboring countries.

1) I think the answer you have provided is not sufficient. I still cannot understand that how we can assume that just on the basis of Itamam-ul-Hujjah which was done in Makkah/Madina, it was also done on Faris and Rome? I mean that there is evident difference between itamam-ul-hujjah on the people of Makkah/Madina where first every question was answered directly and then only the punishment was given. Whereas in the case of neighboring countries, only letters and then later an army was sent by only giving leverage to individuals who ask for asylum. To elaborate further if I make an analogy, if for example in current times, a prophet comes in India, and does itamam-ul-hujjah there, punishes the kafirs there and then write a letter that I have done this in India and now the same will happen to you in Pakistan if you will negate what I am preaching. Will it be considered as itamam-ul-hujjah?
2) Were the letters written to the neighboring countries before the punishment to the direct addressees or after that? Could you please provide the content of letter?
3) Any evidence from the sources of history that the message of Islam was delivered in its ultimate form to the people in neighboring countries? Like people accepting Islam, or Quran or any hadith mentioning that those people are also doing kufr?
4) This is the question which I asked in my last email as well but could not get answer. "Can we say that today Israel, India and US are doing persecution and if we were able then Jihad was obligatory to be declared by our state?"
5) My next question is regarding the current issue of Cartoons on Facebook. What should be the approach of a person using Facebook, should we deactivate our accounts or should we defend it by being there?
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Prohibiting All Non-Muslims From Entering The Ka`bah

Verse 9:28 from the Qur'an reads:

O you who believe (in Allah's Oneness and in His Messenger (Muhammad SAW)! Verily, the Mushrikun (polytheists, pagans, idolaters, disbelievers in the Oneness of Allah, and in the Message of Muhammad SAW) are Najasun (impure). So let them not come near Al-Masjid-al-Haram (at Makkah) after this year, and if you fear poverty, Allah will enrich you if He will, out of His Bounty. Surely, Allah is All-Knowing, All-Wise.

According to the idea of "Itmaam e Hujjah", it is not for man to declare another as 'kaafir'. How then can the disallowance of "non-Muslims" from entering the haram be justified today? And are we not denying them an experience of witnessing devotion and submission, to the One, at its best?

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Jihad For The Propagation Of Islam

Mr Javed Ahmad Ghamidi has written in his book Burhan that jihad for the propagation of the faith is confined to Prophet Muhammad (saw) and the Righteous Caliphs. He holds that we cannot wage war on a people to make them enter Islam after itmam-e hujjah. Please clarify.

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