Talaq Under Pressure From Parents

If parents force their son to give divorce to his wife and under the pressure he gives divorce, is it valid?

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Conditional Divorce

Sir, if a husband gives conditional divorce to his wife, like for example he says that if you go outside the country without my permission you will be divorced but allows her to leave after a few days, but due to other factors the husband seems to be dissatisfied with the wife and does not come to see her off when she leaves. Now the wife seems to claim that he was not happy with her so the divorce is effective. Is this statement right or wrong?

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Effect Of Thought Of Talaq

I want to ask whether just thinking over the divorce words with the intention of trying to remember whether I used them or not anytime makes divorce effective without speaking up the words?

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Execution Of Divorce

Is mere thought of mind enough for a divorce to occur or you need to say the words verbally?

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Implied And Explicit Divorce

I have a couple of questions regarding divorce. a) Is the use of words "I divorce you" necessary for a divorce to occur, or any other words like "you are free" can also have the same effect. b) I was talking to my wife on phone and to conclude the discussion, I said "Ok so now u are free" (Ab aap aazad hain) "You can do whatever you want to do". It was never in my thoughts that I am divorcing her. But immediately after saying these words to her, I thought may be these words have the affect of divorce? c) Is intention important for divorce or using any of these words without intention can also cause divorce?

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Divorce Under Social Pressure

It is submitted that in order to make the Islamic teachings easy and understandable this web site is good. Your teaching style is appreciated. Allah will give you reward of your struggle.

Sir, I visited your web site and search a topic of Divorce you have clarified various issues those were not cleared. In one of your answer it is mentioned that Divorce in anger is not effective. In another answer it is stated that in matter of divorce family law of the country will be considered. While mere announcement of the word of divorce is enough for the separation between husband and wife in Hanafi school of thought.
If it is so please advice me in the following questions:
Would you please clarify as mentioned above?
What do you think if one divorces his wife under annoyance, social pressure, and disturbance (as it has been observed that people announce divorce under family and social pressure without intention and go here and there) verbally or in writing twice or thrice etc?
If some one divorces and does not complete legal process according to the law (Family Law of that Country) whether it will be considered a divorce or not?
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Unintentional Divorce

I have a question about divorce. Does it legally separate the couple if the husband addresses the wife and unintentionally says “talaq” (I divorce you)? What about talaq when you are just angry and say that while there is none to witness this act?

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Regarding Hijab

Does a woman need an extra sheet or daupatta to cover her chest? Will it be ok if she wears a very loose shirt or puts on a kind of upper garment in which her chest is not visible?

I have heard that after the third talaq too woman should not be kicked out of the husband house. How can a woman live alone in that house with her ex husband? Or my understanding about staying of ex-wife in same house is wrong? Please clarify.
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The Law Of Divorce

I am confused about the Iddah mentioned in Surah 65:4. Allah says: “Those in menopause among your women, for them the `Iddah, if you have doubt, is three months; and for those who have no courses”. Ibn Kathir says: "Allah the Exalted clarifies the waiting period of the woman in menopause. And that is the one whose menstruation has stopped due to her older age. Her `iddah is three months instead of the three monthly cycles for those who menstruate, which is based upon the Ayah in (Surah) Al-Baqarah. [see 2:228] The same for the young, who have not reached the years of menstruation. Their `Iddah is three months like those in menopause."

However, in Surah 33:49 Allah says: “O you who have attained to faith! If you marry believing women and then divorce them ere you have touched them, you have no reason to expect, and to calculate, any waiting period on their part.”

So my question is, if you have not had relations with them there is no waiting period, if they don't have a cycle (due to maturity according to Ibn Kathir) then you have to wait three months? Does this mean it's okay to have relations with prepubescent girls? Also what are you waiting for in this time if the girl doesn't get a cycle to begin with? Something doesn't add up for me and I am sure it is due to a misunderstanding on my part. I hope you can clarify this for me.
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Procedure Of Talaq

I have a question regarding the procedure of talaq. I read the first six verses of surah talaq and as per my understanding we should decide with the families of both and even after deciding (talaaq) girl should remain with man for three menstrual cycles. The purpose of three cycles is to give the two of us time to reconsider the decision because even though talaq is allowed yet Allah does not like it. But in our society, in separation as well as tense conditions no lady lives with in laws. What can we do in this regard? Moreover what is the standard procedure of talaq.

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Violation Of The Prescribed Procedure Of Divorce

I have been watching Mr Ghamidi's programs online. I agree with his line of reasoning in most cases. Presently I need to discuss the issue of divorce. I believe Mr Ghamidi correctly disagrees with the procedure of divorce that is vogue in our society. I would appreciate very much if you can please share my following question with Mr Ghamidi as I would like to know what he has to say on this. He consistenly says during his programs and question and answer sessions that divorce that is initiated by not following the Qur’anic procedure is condemned and is even haram. If someone offers the salah without intention or without following the correct procedure than all the ulema from all sects unanimously hold that such a performance of the worship is invalid and must be repeated. Why then a divorce that is not declared in accordance with the Quranic teachings is classified as either valid (by majority of fuqaha) or at best “may be valid” as is held by Mr Ghamidi. Shouldn't it be simply invalid? Why did Allah provide us that much details about divorce procedure in the Qur’an? In my humble opinion, any procedure that is not in accordance with the clear injunctions in the Qur’an should be treated as invalid (including divorce). Why do we say that the salah offered improperly will be invalid but divorce will still be valid? Does ahadith have a ruling authority over the Qur’an? Why do we follow ahadith on the issue of divorce when they are clearly against Qur’an?

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Procedure Of Divorce

I want to know the procedure for divorce for a husband and his wife who are living in different countries have not spent a day together after their nikah? What does our religion say in this regard? They were there together at the time of their nikah but the husband left the very next day to USA as he is a US resident.

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The Threat Of Divorce For Good Deeds

In a family, if the wife is regular in prayer but the husband is not and in spite of great efforts on her part the husband does not respond, what measures can the wife take against her husband? Should she ask for divorce? What if a woman does not discharge her religious obligation in spite of constant counseling by the husband? Should he threat her with divorce?

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Legality Of Khul’ah Without The Consent Of The Husband

Please send me the authentic procedure of khul‘ah as prescribed in the Holy Qur’an and Hadith. A scholar who has studied from Madinah issued a girl khul‘ah letter one-sidedly. This scholar resides in USA and comes from Ghana. He did not contact the husband or his family. The girl told the scholar that her husband is in Pakistan studying. The girl claimed to have contacted her husband before taking khul‘ah from scholar. Is this khul‘ah correct or allowable from Islamic point of view?

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طلاق اور رجوع

اگر کوئی شخص اپنی بیوی سے یہ کہے کہ تم نے ایسا کیا تو ایک طلاق پڑ جائے گی اور اس کی بیوی وہ کام کر لے مگر وہ قرآن کے طریقہ كے مطابق نہ تو لوگوں (بزرگوں )کو گواہ بنائے نہ بیوی کو اس کے گھر بھجوائے اور چند گھنٹوں اور چند دنوں کے اندر رجوع کر لے تو کیا طلاق واقع ہوئی؟ یا عدت سے پہلے رجوع کرنے سے جو تین (٣) مواقع اس کے پاس تھے وہ واپس آ گئے یا نہیں جب کہ بیوی نہ گھر گئی نہ رجوع سے پہلے عدت گزاری؟