According to your view the Christians of today have abandoned the ritual slaughter but I found that even today the Christians in Ethiopia adhere to the mosaic law of slaughter ( The food taboos found in the Old Testament are observed by most people as the Ethiopian Orthodox Church prescribes them. The flesh of animals with uncloven hoofs and those that do not chew their cud are avoided as unclean. It is nearly impossible to get pork. Animals used for food must be slaughtered with the head turned toward the east while the throat is cut: "In the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost" if the slaughterer is Christian or "In the name of Allah the Merciful" if the slaughterer is Muslim.) This article I found on the page http://www.everyculture.com/Cr-Ga/Ethiopia.html. The Christians that adhere to the Mosaic Law in Ethiopia pronounce the name of The Father the son and the Holy Ghost. So my question is can we eat that meat and if not why? If yes then why do we allow a believer to eat the meat of their slaughtered animal when they do not only pronounce the name of Allah but add the name of the son and the Holy Ghost? We see the same critic in the Qur'an: They do blaspheme who say: God is one of three in a Trinity: for there is no god except One God. If they desist not from their word (of blasphemy), verily a grievous penalty will befall the blasphemers among them. (Surah 5:72-3)
If the Christians you are referring to are observing the Sharia of their own for slaughtering animals, as you described, then there is no problem for a Muslim to eat from the meat. You are asking how this can be possible when the Qur’an condemns the belief of the Christians of the time in trinity. The answer is, for the same reason that the Qur’an allowed using the meat produced by the Christians who were…
I live in Memphis, USA. I wanted to ask Mr.Ghamdi about the issue of non-zabiha meat (meat that has not been slaughtered according to Islamic tradition). Is it permissible to eat non-zabiha meat? I ask this question in light of two verses of the Qur'an that in my limited knowledge point me in opposite directions. One talks about how the food of Ahl-e-Kitab has been permitted while the other talks about abstaining from food on which Allah's name has not been pronounced. Kindly advise me in this regard.
The food of Ahl Al-Kitab was permitted simply because at the time of the Prophet (sws) they used to slaughter animals based on their religious rules (Sharia) which included pronouncing the name of God. Therefore there is no conflict between the two verses.
I follow the opinion that we can only eat the food if Allah's name has been invoked upon it (along with other necessary conditions), even if its sacrificed by Muslims, Christians or Jews. Is that correct? Considering the opinion I hold, my question is regarding eating food at some of our Muslim brothers' homes. We come across different situation in western countries that I am mentioning below.
2. We know about one of our Muslim brothers that he considers the food of all the people of book as Halal (even without invoking Allah's name). What should be our approach in this situation. I have read that in case of difference of opinions in fiqh between Muslims, we should respect and follow the opinion of our Muslim brother who is hosting us. Does that apply in this situation too, such that we may respect and follow his opinion when we are at his home, and eat the food without hesitation (this is what I currently think I should do)?
Yes according to our understanding saying the name of God before slaughtering is essential.
Can we use perfumes in which alcohol is an ingredient especially while going to the mosque for prayer?
Alcohol is not prohibited by its nature. It is only the form of the substance that can cause intoxication and inebriation that is prohibited in Islam. Alcohol used in items like medicine, perfumes etc where it has nothing to do with inebriation and intoxication and are allowable.
Alcohol can be used as medicine. In case of insomnia (lack of sleep), doctors prescribe tablets which cause sleep. My questions in this regard follow:
There are two things to consider:
Do we have any position of Islam on treating animals before Zabiha. In the USA the chicken (broilers) are kept indoors not allowed to move. They live in their waste before slaughtering them. They do not even see the sunlight. Same is true about beef; animals are kept in very cruel conditions even though they are Zabiha in the traditional fashion. Is such meat Halal for us where animals are literally tortured before being slaughtered?
We need to separate the two issues here.
I have been living in the U.S for over 20 years and have been fighting this war of "Zabiha Meat” with lot of people. My question is that can I buy beef, for example, from average market which was never prepared or prayed upon by Muslim slaughter way? People argue that in Al-An’am it clearly says: Eat not of (meat) on which Allah's name hath not been pronounced: That would be impiety. But the evil ones ever inspire their friends to contend with you if you were to obey them, you would indeed be Pagans." (Q. 6:121) Therefore, meat has to be prayed upon by Muslim with Allah's name before it can be eaten by Muslim.
The Almighty Allah has allowed the believers only to consume the flesh of the animals which are slaughtered while invoking Allah’s name. If an animal is not slaughtered the prescribed way or God’s name has not been invoked while slaughtering or it has been slaughtered by invoking the name of other than God then it is not allowable. For detail please refer to: http://www.al-mawrid.org/pages/articles_english_detail.php?rid=357&cid=452
My question relates to the food ingredients. I am in the United States and the people in this area use the meat which is not slaughtered and cannot be called zabiha according to Islam. Now if you check different Islamic websites they have lot of different views about products and they emphasize you to know the source. If you are buying the product in the market and you see the label, you are unable to find out the source. Now you can either ask the store associate, who in most cases don't know or you can call the company which is lot of hustle and time consuming. Then these different ulemas have made it very difficult. Take gelatin for example. They say it comes from pork or vegetable. If the gelatin is mentioned in the product how can we find it out? They say check U.D label which is supposed to contain some haram ingredients. You can't even toothpaste without looking at its label. My question is that do we really have to go through this or just go with big things like the things you know about pork only? Or we really have to go through the source before eating and how is it possible to make it simpler and easier?
I understand what you are saying. I think you are asking for a more general advice on what your approach should be Rather than detailed technical advice on what is halal and what is haram.
I live in the US. My question is about halal meat and halal meals in the country. I have researched the slaughter houses both Islamic and non-Islamic. In both animals were bled from the neck, hung upside down, the only difference was that a recording of holy Qur’an was played in the background in Islamic slaughter houses.
So if healthwise both are same can we use regular halal category of meat by saying Allah’s name on it before cooking? There is also availability of organic high quality meats but we are confused about consuming them? When I read in Qur’an 5:3, 5:5, 2:173, 6:145, and 6:115 it appeared that we can eat after saying Allah’s name on it. This is also supported by the hadith where the Prophet (sws) allowed consumption of eatables from non-Muslims after saying Allah’s name on it. Please comment.
The Shariah rules regarding slaughtering animal has two aspects, physical health and spiritual aspect. Issues like blood draining are about the physical health while pronouncing the name of God relates to the spiritual aspect. Pronouncing the name is in fact us justifying the killing of what God has created, for our eating purposes. This justification is a legitimate one simply because God Himself has instructed us about it. Therefore while the two meets you described…
In one of your responses you say that there was no need for the Qur’an to expressly declare alcohol haram. I understand the following verses do declare it haram. Please comment.
Say: the things that my Lord hath indeed forbidden are: shameful deeds, whether open or secret; (sins) and trespasses against truth or reason; assigning of partners to God, for which He hath given no authority; and saying things about God of which ye have no knowledge. (Q 7:33)
They ask thee concerning wine and gambling. Say: "In them is great sin, and some profit, for men; but the sin is greater than the profit." They ask thee how much they are to spend; Say: "What is beyond your needs." Thus does God Make clear to you His Signs: In order that you may consider. (Q. 2.219)
As you see Allah has declared sin haram witch accurse in surah 7:33 and 2:219 in regards to alcohol.
We believe that the Qur’an does not name all the possible sins. A great number of things can be determined in the light of the human fitrah, universal moral principles and the previous religious traditions. That is why here we find the Qur’an referring to the fact that the wine and gambling involve sin.
If the feed of a halal animals (cow, goat etc.) comprises haram ingredients; does it make the animal haram?
I am not sure what exactly you mean by comprising haram ingredients. In any case, if you mean for example a cow eating haram food, then this does not make the meat of the cow haram because the cow digests the food and this digestion includes chemical procedures that totally change the nature of what was eaten. The only exception that I can think of at this time is if a cow that somehow becomes…
I have a few questions. My first question relates to the consumption of alcohol. I know it is haram. But living in a western country, where it is part of the social life, one has to mix with the people who drink. I have been avoiding drinking but attended parties and social gatherings where wine is served. Recently I came across a book where it was written that Hadrat Umar (sws) used to punish those people who attended parties like these. Where does Islam stand on this?
Could you please guide me about the Friday Prayers? Is it true that if I missed three in a row I am no more a Muslim? I also wanted to share that I have to pay my car insurance and for this purpose I have to pay interest. Are there exceptions for Muslims who are living in non-Muslim countries?
It is not very favorable to join parties in which people usually drink. Such company can lead one to drinking. However, it is not haram to attend such parties. The only thing that is prohibited is drinking itself. As for the importance of Friday Congregation our view can be reached at: http://al-mawrid.org/pages/questions_english_detail.php?qid=40&cid=319&search=friday
We believe that insurance is not haram. Paying interest is also not haram. The Islamic Shari'ah has prohibited taking interest not being subjected…
I was studying Surah al-Nahl from Maulana Maududi’s commentary on the Qur’an. The interpretation of a verse in it by the Maulana does not convince me. Please comment.
And from the fruits of date-palms and grapes, you derive strong drink and a goodly provision. Verily, therein is indeed a sign for people who have wisdom. (Q. 16:67)
And of the fruits of the date-palm, and grapes, whence ye derive strong drink and (also) good nourishment. Lo! therein is indeed a portent for people who have sense. (Q. 16:67)
And out of the fruits of date-palms and grapes you derive intoxicants as well as wholesome sustenance. Surely there is a sign for those who use reason.
And Allah sends down water (rain) from the sky, then He revives the earth therewith after its death. Verily, in this is a sign (clear proof) for people who listen (obey Allah). And verily! In the cattle, there is a lesson for you. We give you to drink of that which is in their bellies, from between excretions and blood, pure milk; palatable to the drinkers. And from the fruits of date-palms and grapes, you derive strong drink and a goodly provision. Verily, therein is indeed a sign for people who have wisdom. And your Lord inspired the bees, saying: "Take you habitations in the mountains and in the trees and in what they erect. "Then, eat of all fruits, and follow the ways of your Lord made easy (for you)." There comes forth from their bellies, a drink of varying colour wherein is healing for men. Verily, in this is indeed a sign for people who think. And Allah has created you and then He will cause you to die, and of you there are some who are sent back to senility, so that they know nothing after having known (much). Truly! Allah is All-Knowing, All-Powerful. (Q. 16:65- 70)
Thank you for the email. I believe that the adjective hasanan (wholesome/good) qualifying the noun rizqan (provision/blessing) leads us to that the speaker/writer expressly attaches approval for this particular rizq. However, there is no indication in the text that shows that sakar (intoxication) was allowed. It just proved that the people, not necessarily all, but humans use this as source of drinks. Now let us move to another verse which gives a judgment regarding drinks.…
Why is wine not prohibited in Paradise as in this world?
Wine is not a prohibited thing itself rather it is forbidden to be taken owing to the bad effects it causes. This follows that when its harmful element i.e. causing inebriation is removed, there exists no reason to render it forbidden. The wine provided to the believers in Paradise will be rid of intoxicating effects. The Almighty says:
There will wait on them immortal youths with bowls and ewers and a cup from a pure…
Does the Holy Qur’an specifically declare ‘alcohol’ or wine prohibited (haram)? Some people argue that it does not. Therefore, these people contend that a Muslim can consume alcohol as long as it does not cause a loss of sanity and he does not fall into the state of mindlessness. Please provide Qur’anic reference in support of your reply.
It would be safe to say that there was no need for the Holy Qur’an to expressly declare alcohol haram. All intoxicants are already known to be harmful through our innate guidance. The Islamic Shari‘ah takes these dictates of nature for granted. While pointing towards this abhorrence for liquor the Qur’an asks its followers to abstain from consuming it:
O you who believe: this liquor and gambling and idols and these divining arrows are abominations…
One often comes across people especially in Pakistan and India using the term Makruh while talking about certain foods. We are aware of Halal (i.e. allowed for consumption) and Haram (i.e. forbidden) foods but there seems to be a lot of confusion about Makruh foods. I have been told that such foods are not Haram but fall in the category about which we are doubtful. It is also said that we are recommended to avoid them. Please explain this in the light of the Qur’an and the Hadith.
The term Makruh does not belong to the basic religious sources of the Shari‘ah rather it has been coined by some juristic schools of thought. Some of the jurists believe that if a weak tradition ascribed to the Holy Prophet (sws) renders something forbidden then it is Makruh. We understand that the Shari‘ah prohibits only four things which include flesh of swine, carrion, poured out blood and animals consecrated in the name of deities other…
A Muslim had a very critical health problem and lost hope in all kinds of conventional medicine. He decided on using Islamic medicine. I mean he recites parts of the Holy Qur’an and blows on a glass of water and then drinks it. He also uses medicine which the Holy Prophet (sws) is reported to have used or recommended like black seeds. He started to improve but was not fully cured. Later on he discovered that he might be cured if he avoided certain diet and did certain exercises. As he has adopted the Islamic treatment and has strong faith in God and sticks to it with all conviction and true intent, is he now allowed to resort again to the conventional medicine, and, at the same time, continue with the Islamic medicines? Please provide reference from the basic sources of the religion to substantiate you reply.
We understand that the Messengers of God and the Books revealed to them are not sent in order to divulge medical knowledge to people; rather they were all sent to guide humans in religious matters. We therefore believe that the Book of God never touches upon any issue other than religion. We are supposed to apply all available knowledge, cures and remedies made available by medical science. Therefore, validity of the claim that the medicine…
Why fish is halal without slaughtering?
Fish is halal without slaughter. This has been taught by the Prophet (sws). However, when we see that the Holy Qur’an prohibits maytah (flesh of a dead animal/carion) the question arises in our mind isn’t fish maytah for it is not slaughtered in the prescribed manner? Some people think that the Prophet (sws) abrogated the divine ruling mentioned in the Qur’an when he declared that we can eat fish. This question has been addressed by…
Has Islam fully differentiated between halal and haram. What is the nature of the concept of halal in Islam. How can I explain this concept to a non-Muslim?
I believe you want to confirm if Islam has clearly demarcated between halal and haram. How do we define the concept of halal? We believe that Islam has not defined all halal and haram acts. Islam relies on the guidance provided to mankind through fitrah (human orientation). We know that every man approves kindness and fairness and disapproves oppression and cheating. Similarly falsehood is universally condemned and truthfulness is praised as worthy. There are a…
I was having a discussion with a group of friends on halāl meat and would appreciate if you could shed some light on this topic. Allāh has permitted us to eat the flesh of animals slaughtered by Ahl-i Kitāb. Here in the UK the meat that is generally available is approved by the church (though I have not confirmed this). I think the only condition they have is that the blood be drained (again this is contentious as stunning is used). However, assuming it is approved by the Church, would it make this meat permissible for Muslims to consume although the people who may be slaughtering the animals may be atheists / non-Christian / non-Jews? Can we follow the assumption that the UK is a Christian country? I found this reference on another site, islamqa.com
The animal needs to be slaughtered according to the Sharī‘ah. Since the Sharī‘ah of Islam and the Sharī‘ah of Ahl al-Kitāb have originally similar rulings in this regard believers are allowed to eat the flesh of animals slaughtered by the People of the Book. However, this allowance presupposes that the kitābi (a Jew or a Christian) slaughters the animal properly so as its blood is completely drained off and he invokes the name…