Who is a Kafir? How can a Christian be a Kafir and still be from among
the People of the book?
A person becomes a Kafir when he denies the truth in spite of being convinced that it is the truth. Since it is humanly impossible for a person to determine whether some person is denying the truth or not, it is only on the basis of information provided by the Almighty that a person can be called a Kafir. In the times of His Rusul, He chose to impart this information to his Rusul through…
Can you kindly explain the term Armageddon as i heard it in a program End of Time shown on a TV channel.
The word occurs in the Book Revelation (16:16) of the New Testament:
And he gathered them together into a place called in the Hebrew tongue Armageddon. (Re: 16:16)
Smiths Bible Dictionary of the Bible says:
The scene of the struggle of good and evil is suggested by that battle-field, the plain of Esdraelon, which was famous for two great victories, of Barak over the Canaanites and of Gideon over the…
One of my friends claims that Jesus never says the exact words “I am God” in the bible but He does proclaim that He is God. John 10:30, John 8:58, John 1:1, John 1:14
“Be shepherds of the church of God, which he bought with his own blood.” Who bought the church—the church of God—with His own blood? Jesus Christ. Acts 20:28 declares that God purchased His church with His own blood. Therefore, Jesus is God.
Thomas the disciple declared “My Lord and my God” to Jesus and Jesus does not correct him John 20:28
Titus 2:13, tells us to wait for the coming of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ also in Peter 1:1.
Hebrews 1:8, The Father refers to Jesus as “O God” indicating that Jesus is God.
In the Bible people worshipped Jesus and Jesus never told them it was wrong.
Your friend refers to a few verses from the gospel of John as evidences that Jesus is in fact God.
In this reply I do not want to look at every verse that was referred to in your post.I only want to make a general comment about the Gospels that will hopefully clarify my position about this kind of quoting from Bible:
There are four Gospels in the new testament. The first three (Mark, Matthew, Luke)…
There are some worshipers of evil. If we meet someone like those people, how should we treat them? Should we treat them like we treat followers of other religions like for example Christians, Hindus etc.) or some other way? Can we be their friends?
We are related to all the people in the word. We have been given divine guidance which we need to communicate to the world. This is only possible if we interact with them and invite them to the true guidance. We are not required to enter into enmity to all the non-Muslims. This would make any propagation impossible. I would suggest everyone should behave normally with them. If we have good knowledge of our religion…
What are your views regarding the belief in the second coming of Jesus (sws).
I wanted to know if Christ was really raised to heavens. Which Qur'ānic verse or sound narrative explains this event?
The rising of Christ to heaven has been expressed in the following Qur'ānic verse of Ṣūrah Āl 'Imrān:
إِذْ قَالَ اللّهُ يَا عِيسَى إِنِّي مُتَوَفِّيكَ وَرَافِعُكَ إِلَيَّ وَمُطَهِّرُكَ مِنَ الَّذِينَ كَفَرُوْا وَجَاعِلُ الَّذِينَ اتَّبَعُوكَ فَوْقَ الَّذِينَ كَفَرُوْا إِلَى يَوْمِ الْقِيَامَةِ ثُمَّ إِلَيَّ مَرْجِعُكُمْ فَأَحْكُمُ بَيْنَكُمْ فِيمَا كُنتُمْ فِيهِ تَخْتَلِفُونَ [سورة آل عمران/55]
Behold! Allah said: "O Jesus! I will take thee and raise thee to Myself and clear thee (of the falsehoods) of…
If a non-Muslim living in full by means of usury business invites me for food in his house, can I go and eat his food? If yes, then may I know the proofs that conclude such results?
The Shari`ah has not dealt with the issue specifically. Therefore, our conclusion will be based on Ijtihād considering the principles of the religious guidance in this regard. We believe that there is nothing wrong in accepting such an invitation and eating food offered by a non-Muslim. If we close the door for such an interaction then there remains no chance of propagation of the religion and dialogue between Muslims and the members of other religions.…
Even if it is accepted that polytheists alone are not to be allowed to come in the vicinity of the Ka'bah, the argument remains unanswered. Because at the end of the day, it would still be us humans who would be judging others as 'Mushrikun'. For example, we would certainly suggest that Hindus, for one, are polytheists. But the matter is not as simple. We don't know what is in the hearts of men. Many Hindus claim that they believe in one God alone, and the "statues" are there only to help them visualise some entity - no more, no less. What decision do we make in such cases, and what approach should have, at large?
The basic thing in this regard is the definition of the word Mushrik. As I wrote in my response the word implies those who ascribe themselves to the religion of shirk. This entails that those who due to any misunderstanding indulge in Shirk or do not accept that they are polytheists and present some kind of interpretation and explanation to their involvement in polytheism as some of the Hindu sects and Christians do cannot be…
On what grounds Islam is considered a better religion than any other religion? Please explain.
We Muslims do not claim that there are many religions created by humans for their benefit and Islam is the best amongst them. Instead, our claim is that God Himself responded to the need of religious guidance in man by sending the message of Islam. It was sent through many earlier messengers, including Moses and Jesus. Finally it was revived and presented in its pure form again for the last time through Muhammad, may God…
I have a question about Jews and Christians. Are Jews and Christians really the Qur’anic "ahl al-kitab (the People of the book)"? The reason I am asking this question is that I have a friend who says that the Jews are different from "the People of the book". He even says that Roman Catholics cannot be amongst the People of the Book. There are many Christians who worship Jesus’ Statue which is even against the teachings of the Bible. He even claims that we cannot eat meal with Christians. I believe that is true but how does it put them outside: "the People of the Book" (Ahl al-kitab)? Please throw some light on this?
What makes the Jews and the Christians the People of the Book is the fact that they claim to be the followers of the Israelite Prophets (sws) who were basically the true Prophets of God. The Qur’an makes it clear that the Jews and the Christians do not follow the true teachings of God as taught by the Divine Messengers yet it accepts their status as the People of the Book. It is thus the…
Can we greet non-Muslims with conventional Muslim greetings “assalam-o-alaikum”?
There is nothing wrong in saying assalaam o alaykum to the non-Muslims. Some people think that we can wish well for the non-Muslims but that is not true Islamic stance. We need to interact with them and try to do them good. We need to create a da'wah relationship with them so that we can easily communicate to them the teachings of our religion.
I've read your position on the definition of Kufr. Simply put, you state that only those who knowingly reject Allah's message can be considered Kafirs. Since no human can know in an absolute sense whether or not such rejection is truly deliberate and made in full knowledge of it being the truth, we cannot brand anyone as being a Kafir.
This concept is then extrapolated to infer that non-muslims also have an equally good chance of gaining Allah's Pleasure in life to come.
While this concept seems in keeping with my own finite appreciation of the concept of justice, and I am totally certain that Allah would not punish anyone for unknowingly rejecting Islam, I'd like to know to what extent this definition of Kufr and Kafir prevailed in the "Golden Era" of Islam. It is safe to say that the Islamic scholars of that age, living chronologically closer to the Prophet's time and living in a less complicated world would also have come to this conclusion in their understanding of Islam.
Is this apparent from the religious literature that survives from that day? Can you cite a respected Islamic scholar from the generations immediately succeeding the prophet who agrees with this definition of Kufr and Kafir?
I ask because this definition of Kufr will probably not be accepted by the majority of Muslims today. If you could demonstrate that your understanding of what Kufr entails was also shared by the classical Islamic scholars it would go a long way into convincing people that rather then creating an innovative and political correct interpretation of this concept, you are in fact taking them back to an understanding that was distorted over the ages.
Before I answer your question, I would like for you to appreciate that we stress the point that people of other faiths cannot be declared Kaafir (i.e. disbeliever) in the sense that they have rejected the faith and are destined to go to hell. In fact there are other connotations of the word also. It can sometimes be used simply to initial rejections, which may sometimes be based on arguments.
Another fact worth considering is that…
This question is regarding a Youtube link (http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=1ioqkDE3PRk) addressed by Mr. Shezad Saleem about friendship with Christians. I want you to please explain to me that what does he mean by determining Jews and Christians as 'kafirs'?
Some scholars and the generality consider the Jews and Christians and all the non-Muslims as kaafir. Mr Shehzad Saleem holds that we cannot declare someone kaafir to be definitely destined for Hell because we have no means to determine if they have rejected the truth knowingly. We cannot know whether they have disbelieved in Islam after being convinced of the veracity of the faith. There could be people who opt to ignore the faith because…
A Hindu asked me a question about religious rights of Hindus living in the Muslim Countries. He was asking me that why Hindus are not allowed to worship in Saudi Arabia and other Muslim countries? He even said in anger that Muslims have no right to stop non-Muslims from praying in Muslim countries. Can you please give an elaborate answer to this question and throw some light on it?
We believe that we cannot stop non-Muslims living in the Muslim countries form offering their religious duties. The Prophet (sws) of God and the Companions after him did not stop the non-Muslim population of the state from offering religious services. We have no right to impose restrictions without sanction from God and His Messenger.
I wonder why Islam accepts Jesus Christ (sws) as a prophet when he said that he is the only way to Heaven, and the only begotten Son of God. If he is lying, then Islam accepts a false prophet. If he is telling the truth, Islam is not the way he is. Can you explain? Thanks in advance.
The primary source of religious knowledge in Islam is the Holy Qur’an. It claims that the Prophet Jesus (sws) was the true messenger of God. It cleanses the personality of Jesus Christ (sws) from the falsifications ascribed to him.