Sir, if a husband gives conditional divorce to his wife, like for example he says that if you go outside the country without my permission you will be divorced but allows her to leave after a few days, but due to other factors the husband seems to be dissatisfied with the wife and does not come to see her off when she leaves. Now the wife seems to claim that he was not happy with her so the divorce is effective. Is this statement right or wrong?
The husband had the right to revoke his decision. He has used his right. Now the wife cannot claim that if he is not happy the divorce is final. If there is a dispute between as the wife insists on her stance the best she could do is to turn to the court of law. She cannot just decide that she is divorced because her husband did not see her off.