My question is regarding Jihad of the companions of prophet. I am convinced about the stance of Mr Ghamidi that Prophet (sws) in fact killed the mushrikeen of that time after "itamam-e-hujjat". But I wonder that itamam-e-hujjat can be accepted for individuals who were the direct addressees of Prophet (sws), as he (sws) totally convinced them regarding the message of Islam and they deliberately denied the truth. But what about the nations (i.e. Persians and Romans) which were just sent letters. Can "itamam-e-hujjah" be done just by sending letters? I believe that saying that "itamam-e-hujjah was completed on those nations just by sending letters, is a weak argument. May be my knowledge is not complete. Kindly shed some light in detail as I and my friend are having difficulty in understanding this.
Some people are of the view that hizb-ullah and taliban have actually defeated Israel and US by engaging them in war for several years and at the same time recently Israel withdrew from one of the wars against hizbullah. Now the jihad they are doing does not satisfy all the conditions of jihad, then how they are winning the battles, should we consider it that it is God's help (nusrat-e-ilahi). And can we say that today Israel, India and US are doing persecution and if we were able then jihad was obligatory to be declared by our state? Kindly answer in detail about both the questions especially the first one.
As far as the itmam al-hujjah on neighboring countries in the time of the Prophet (sws) is concerned, it was not merely accomplished by writing letters. Letters were just the beginning of itmam al-hujjah.
The real thing in this regard was the actual happening of shahādah of Muhammad (sws) in Arabia. This was enough to conclusively convey the truth to the rulers of neighbouring countries to whom the Prophet (sws) wrote these letters. Any evasion on their part was tantamount to a deliberate denial of the truth. As a result, they had to face the wrath of God in the form of attacks launched by the Companions (rta) after the departure of the Prophet (sws). The common masses of these countries were also observers of the divine judgement which took place in Arabia, and hence to them also the truth was conclusively conveyed. Any individual inquiry from them about the truth would of course have been treated in the same manner as it was in the case of Idolaters of Arabia, as cited thus by the Qur'ān:
وَإِنْ أَحَدٌ مِّنَ الْمُشْرِكِينَ اسْتَجَارَكَ فَأَجِرْهُ حَتَّى يَسْمَعَ كَلاَمَ اللّهِ ثُمَّ أَبْلِغْهُ مَأْمَنَهُ ذَلِكَ بِأَنَّهُمْ قَوْمٌ لاَّ يَعْلَمُونَ
And if anyone among the Idolaters asks you for asylum, grant it to him so that he may hear the Word of Allah and then escort him to where he can be secure. That is because they are men without knowledge. (9:6)
As far as your second question is concerned, it needs to be appreciated that this world is a trial and test for us. As part of this test, at times the Almighty lets the right consequences happen through wrong means. However, this does not mean that He has given license to the wrong means adopted. He is only letting human beings use their free will to follow His directives.